You don't have enough letters.Applying math to relationships.
You cunts must do some wanking.
It's maths.
You don't have enough letters.Applying math to relationships.
You cunts must do some wanking.
If the assets are jointly owned, she has a right to them anyway. If they are her husband's assets acquired independently or from his own inheritance, why should she have a right to a share/percentage in them?
This debate is getting lost in semantics I think. Peter's usage of the term 'flat' is a bit of misnomer. I've already explained that I think he meant a gross sum rather than a fixed sum in every case (of course I could be reading him wrong, so I'll just let him explain what 'he' meant).
As for myself, of course I agree that the sum will be variable from case to case. But the factors that make it a variable should be centred around her lack of means, loss of opportunity and burden of raising kids (if it exists) and how to compensate that rather than being centred around the husband's wealth.
We aren't privy as to how the assets were required. For all we know they could have been acquired off the back of her own inheritance. I'm assuming they met at an early age, got married, had kids. They were a team and a family unit who made decision together. Rodgers became successful in his managerial career which afforded them a lavish lifestyle. Now they are split she'll be entitled to receive x amount to return her to the standard of living she was accustomed to or a standard where she can cope independently. Case closed really. Hopefully they both find happiness elsewhere.
BUT YOU CAN'T REMOVE THE 3 FUCKING KIDS FROM THE FUCKING EQUATION BECAUSE THEY ACTUALLY EXIST YOU COMPLETE CRETIN.
Why did I always think there were 3 kids?
Huh, soz.
Everyone knows divorce is an expensive process for which you'll inevitably get fucked, especially if you're male and rich. It's hard to have much in the way of sympathy.
The whole idea of it just seems bonkers to me.
I was making a general point. Wasn't really commenting on the specifics of Rodgers case. But if the property was acquired jointly, then she doesn't need recourse to maintenance law. She has part ownership of those assets anyway.We aren't privy as to how the assets were required. For all we know they could have been acquired off the back of her own inheritance. I'm assuming they met at an early age, got married, had kids. They were a team and a family unit who made decision together. Rodgers became successful in his managerial career which afforded them a lavish lifestyle. Now they are split she'll be entitled to receive x amount to return her to the standard of living she was accustomed to or a standard where she can cope independently. Case closed really. Hopefully they both find happiness elsewhere.
BUT YOU CAN'T REMOVE THE 3 FUCKING KIDS FROM THE FUCKING EQUATION BECAUSE THEY ACTUALLY EXIST YOU COMPLETE CRETIN.
Why should the other half be compensated for a 'loss of a career' etc? If they chose to give up work, and stay at home, then that's their call is it not? Why should the wealthier other half have to pay out for a decision the other party made? It's not like they've been imprisoned against their will?
Again, removing kids from any equations, I don't understand how a partner voluntarily giving up work, and living off the other half's wages, should be entitled to any significant chunk of it after they separate. And we all know, that even if the other half is unfaithful, and a complete nightmare from day one, they would still be entitled to a significant financial settlement, purely based on them having a ring on their finger.
Maybe don't stick your dick in the office travel coordinator and you won't run into such bother.
Everyone knows divorce is an expensive process for which you'll inevitably get fucked, especially if you're male and rich. It's hard to have much in the way of sympathy.
The whole idea of it just seems bonkers to me.
Oh Jesus - surely not.
Re: Mors post
He slipped this in earlier too: Women couldn't give a flying fuck who he manages when he's earning that wedge. 'yeah liverchester utd, awesome. We still going to Tiffany's this afternoon?'
It's cool though, he's not talking about Mr Rodgers. He's talking 'bout bitches.
So in essence she's making her case for as big a slice of the cake as possible based on what she put in to it.
If it's not a "flat rate" applicable to each and every case then it must be founded on whatever assets the relationship developed.
If the husband holds the assets exclusively in his own name, the law says they are *his* assets. That's property law.
Are you saying that maintenance law should stipulate that once a man/woman gets married, any property purchased in his/her name should be deemed to be a joint asset?! That's an utterly ridiculous and unfair proposition.
In agreement with the first para. She has every right to, and it is logical that someone who puts in more into a marriage should be entitled to more than someone like a WAG etc. No quarrel with that.
Don't agree with the bolded part. Or rather I don't understand it.
If the couple developed assets jointly, they should be jointly held.
If the husband holds the assets exclusively in his own name, the law says they are *his* assets. That's property law.
Are you saying that maintenance law should stipulate that once a man/woman gets married, any property purchased in his/her name should be deemed to be a joint asset?! That's an utterly ridiculous and unfair proposition.
I think it's better if we broke this down into two simple questions about maintenance law?
1. What should be the starting point of negotiations (from the perspective of the law) for maintenance? -
My answer in terms of the other spouse's assets is 0%
2. Who should the burden of proof lie on?
My answer is the spouse claiming maintenance.
I'm assuming your answers are 50% and the spouse defending maintenance. That to me is very unreasonable.
From what I understand of his argument, he's saying there should be a gross/flat sum calculated on the basis of a number of factors, including the raising of kids, loss of career opportunity etc. and not that there should be a specified flat sum in every case. As opposed to a percentage of the husband's assets.
Which seems to me to be entirely reasonable, and exactly the way the law works around here. I don't know about English law, but if it entitles a spouse to a percentage of the husband's income/assets, it's utterly ridiculous.
No I'm not. Stop saying I am.
No, I think it'd be fair if he was offered a choice between compensating her for raising the children and letting her keep them.
If a couple purchases a property together, it is obviously jointly owned. But if the husband goes out to buy a shaving blade of his own money, the law doesn't deem that it belongs to the wife as well!
The rest of your post doesn't deserve a response.
The question though is, is it his money or their money that he bought the blade with?