dmishra has interpreted my arguments correctly and I agree with everything else that he's added.
Sorry, don't really have time to reply to specific posts.
Perhaps my knowledge of English law is actually non-existent, so I'll ask someone to clarify. Are married couples taxed as one unit in the UK? If they are, then a lot of my arguments will need to be revisited.
The legal system I come from (which is largely based on English common law) does not tax a married couple as one unit. The two individuals are treated separately, as having separate sources of income, and having individual property rights.
So to answer your question in my legal sytem, I can say categorically that it would be 'his' money and not 'their' money. The law doesn't recognise 'their' money at all.
Translation:
- Dmishra's taken the heat off me (thank fuck) and even though the point he's making is somewhat different to mine, I'll take it cos this isn't getting any better for me.
Sorry, don't really have time to reply to specific posts.
They are treated separately. In fact marriage is barely even recognised in the tax system.
If a couple purchases a property together, it is obviously jointly owned. But if the husband goes out to buy a shaving blade of his own money, the law doesn't deem that it belongs to the wife as well!
The rest of your post doesn't deserve a response.
Dmishra's use of "ad hominem" in this thread is stunning.
She will take most of his money
London courts are regarded as the world capital for divorces.
http://www.theguardian.com/lifeands...eb/24/divorce-rich-husband-london-english-law
................Now they are split she'll be entitled to receive x amount to return her to the standard of living she was accustomed to or a standard where she can cope independently.......
BUT YOU CAN'T REMOVE THE 3 FUCKING KIDS FROM THE FUCKING EQUATION BECAUSE THEY ACTUALLY EXIST YOU COMPLETE CRETIN.
You haven't addressed the salient point peter - are you still adamant that a wife's conduct has virtually no bearing on the husband's ability to achieve at work, and that her conduct and contribution within the marriage should not influence the settlement she gets in any way?
Yes, within reasonable bounds.
Are you seriously suggesting the opposite?
If you think that is an extreme example of how unreasonable a woman can be then you have a fairly narrow perspective.
What I described is not a million miles away from what a lot of people would deem quite reasonable expectations, the lack of sympathy towards work pressures notwithstanding.
Regardless, if you accept that home life can have a bearing on your ability to succeed at work - unless you are proposing there is some magical cutoff point for stress, beyond which it has an effect, but below that it does not - then you're still holding contradictory views.
It either affects you, or it doesn't