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Regarding the VAR in Bitters vs. Scum. When Kane scored against us a few seasons back it was at the time explained that since one of Lovrens studs had touched the ball it was a all new situation and hence Kane received it from an oposition player he was not offside. The Maguire touch on the ball is clear and obvious changing the direction at the ball. Why is Sigurdsson then in Offside?
Regarding the VAR in Bitters vs. Scum. When Kane scored against us a few seasons back it was at the time explained that since one of Lovrens studs had touched the ball it was a all new situation and hence Kane received it from an oposition player he was not offside. The Maguire touch on the ball is clear and obvious changing the direction at the ball. Why is Sigurdsson then in Offside?
Regarding the VAR in Bitters vs. Scum. When Kane scored against us a few seasons back it was at the time explained that since one of Lovrens studs had touched the ball it was a all new situation and hence Kane received it from an oposition player he was not offside. The Maguire touch on the ball is clear and obvious changing the direction at the ball. Why is Sigurdsson then in Offside?
I know that is why the blew the whistle, but my point is that you are not offside when the ball come from opposition player. That is why Kane was not offside, although the ball at that time didn't change direction even. What is the correct verdict? Both can't be correct.
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