Could someone explain to me why people are entitled to half of their partners wealth during a divorce when they've not contributed financially to any of it? And why would they get of their income moving forwards post separation?!
I can obviously understand that if a couple buy a house together, both work, both pay into the mortgage, that when they split, they should obviously both get ~half. But if the other half has not worked, and sits at home as a wag (lets remove kids from the argument for a second), then why is she entitled to anything at all? The other half hasn't illegally imprisoned their partner, they are there at home of their own free will.